Test bank understanding food principles and preparation 5th edition

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Understanding Food Principles and Preparation 5th Edition by Amy Christine Brown – Test Bank

 Test Bank Understanding Food Principles and Preparation 5th Edition by Amy Christine Brown 

Sample  Question

Test Bank[1] for Chapter – 2 Food Evaluation

Key to question information: ANS = correct answer; DIF = question difficulty; REF = page reference

Multiple Choice

  1. Subjective evaluation is
  2. evaluation of food quality that relies on numbers generated by laboratory instruments.
  3. evaluation or sensory tests that rely on the opinions of individuals.
  4. tests used to detail the specific tastes of individual foods.
  5. a sequence of tests that document the characteristics of food preparation.

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 23

  1. In objective evaluations
  2. instruments rather than humans are used to measure the characteristics of foods qualitatively.
  3. humans rather than instruments are used to measure the characteristics of foods quantitatively.
  4. laboratory instruments instead of humans are used to measure the characteristics of foods quantitatively.
  5. a sequence of tests are used to document the characteristics of food preparation using humans as taste testers.

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 23|26

  1. Objective analysis measures
  2. the responses of people to food products as perceived by sight.
  3. the responses of people to food products as perceived by taste.
  4. the responses of people to food products as perceived by touch.
  5. the responses of people to food products as perceived by smell.
  6. all of the above answers are correct
  7. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: f        DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 23

  1. Hedonic testing relates to
  2. pleasure.
  3. selecting the preferred sample.
  4. paired preference testing.
  5. all of the above answers are correct

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 24

  1. A 9-point scale ranging from “Like Extremely” to “Dislike Extremely” best describes
  2. discriminative tests.
  3. descriptive tests.
  4. analytical tests.
  5. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 24|25

  1. A(n) _____ test usually uses words like “weak,” “moderate,” and “strong” to describe samples that differ in magnitude of an attribute.
  2. ranking
  3. duo-trio
  4. ordinal
  5. paired comparison

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 24

  1. Which of the following would be used to test for sensitivity?
  2. triangle
  3. duo-trio
  4. threshold
  5. all of the above answers are correct

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 24

  1. A _____ test is used to find the minimal detectable level of a substance.
  2. hedonic
  3. dilution
  4. difference
  5. none of the above answers are correct

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 24

  1. _____ tests rely on a trained panel to document differences in a product’s sensory characteristics.
  2. Discriminative
  3. Descriptive
  4. Affective
  5. None of the above answers is correct

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 24|25

  1. General taste panels usually consist of at least _____ individuals.
  2. 2
  3. 5
  4. 7
  5. 10
  6. 13

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 25

  1. Which of the following is not a criterion for a general taste panel?
  2. chew no gum immediately before testing
  3. have not ingested other food for at least 4 hours before testing
  4. are nonsmokers
  5. are of an equal distribution in gender
  6. all of the above answers are criteria for a general taste panel

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 25

  1. Which statement is incorrect regarding food samples?
  2. There must be only enough food for one bite.
  3. Samples must be taken from the same portion of the food.
  4. Food is usually placed in clear or white containers.
  5. Lighting in the room is uniform and the temperature is comfortable.
  6. all of the above statements are correct regarding food samples

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 26

  1. The best time for taste panels to sample food is
  2. early morning before breakfast.
  3. mid-morning or mid-afternoon.
  4. when panelists are hungry.
  5. when panelists are full.

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 26

  1. The penetrometer, the Warner-Bratzler shear, and the shortometer are all used to perform physical tests for
  2. visual evaluation.
  3. weight/volume measurements.
  4. texture measurements.
  5. viscosity measurements.
  6. concentration measurements.

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 27

  1. Rheology is
  2. the study of the flow of and deformation of matter.
  3. a measure of three-dimensional space that is often used to measure liquids.
  4. the concentration of matter measured by the amount of mass per unit volume.
  5. a type of bioactive compound (nutrient or non-nutrient) that has health benefits.
  6. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 26

  1. The viscosity of fluids can determine all of the following except
  2. how easily guacamole dip is deposited on tortilla chips.
  3. how smoothly mayonnaise spreads onto a slice of bread.
  4. how long a tomato will hold its shape.
  5. how tender a pie pastry feels to the teeth.

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 26

  1. Which of the following chemical tests measures the degree of unsaturation in fats?
  2. pH test
  3. iodine value test
  4. peroxide value test
  5. chromatography
  6. fuchsin test

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 28

  1. Which instrument or test would be used to observe microorganisms in food?
  2. microscope
  3. atomic absorption
  4. shortometer
  5. viscometer (or viscosimeter)

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 27

  1. Which of the following are not measured by physical testing?
  2. size and shape
  3. weight, volume, and density
  4. moisture, texture, and viscosity
  5. nutrient and nonnutrient substances

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 26

  1. Descriptive testing used to detail the specific flavors or textures of a food or beverage would use
  2. hedonic tests.
  3. threshold and dilution tests.
  4. flavor and texture profiles.
  5. personal preference tests.

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 24

True/False

  1. Objective tests conducted for research and development (R&D) rely on the opinions of highly trained individuals.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 23|26

  1. Human taste panels are required to evaluate products using various types of established scientific objective tests.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 23

  1. Regarding sensory testing, affective tests are used to detect “differences.”

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 23-25

  1. In regards to subjective testing, effective tests are used to detect “individual preferences.”

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 24|25

  1. When scoring/evaluating for consumer testing with children, “smiley” or “frowny” faces can be used for scoring in lieu of the hedonic scale.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 24

  1. Males can usually detect sweetness better than females.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 25

  1. Whether or not a person prefers a certain aspect of a food is a focus of effective testing.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 25

  1. Objective analytical tests are usually conducted by an untrained panel that evaluates food products through either discriminative or descriptive testing.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 25

  1. The Association of Official Analytical Chemists (AOAC) International publishes a book on chemical tests.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 27

  1. The nature, concentration, and temperature of a liquid all affect its viscosity.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 26

Matching: Physical Tests for Food Evaluation

Definition choices:

  1. used to measure mineral content
  2. measures the concentration of various organic compounds, especially sugar
  3. measures the consistency of batters and other viscous foods
  4. measures color by detecting the amount and wavelength of light transmitted through a solution
  5. measures tenderness by determining the resistance of baked goods such as cookies, pastries, and crackers to breakage
  6. polarimeter
  7. shortometer
  8. atomic absorption
  9. spectrophotometer
  10. line-spread test

Key:

  1. ANS: b DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 27
  2. ANS: e DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 27
  3. ANS: a DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 27
  4. ANS: d DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 27
  5. ANS: c DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 27

Discussion

  1. Define objective and subjective evaluation of foods. Give several examples of tests of each type, explaining the differences between them.

ANS: See pp. 23-28.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 23-28

  1. Design a product score sheet to be used by both adults and children for the pecan brownies that you plan to sell and distribute to Whole Foods grocery stores. You will use the results of this affective testing to prove to Whole Foods that your product belongs in their stores.

ANS: See pp. 23-25.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 23-25

  1. You have been asked by the manager of your school cafeteria to design and conduct a taste panel for their new macaroni and cheese recipe. Describe the general guidelines that you are going to follow when setting up and conducting this taste panel. Consider seating arrangements, room temperature and lighting, time of tastings, portion sizes and containers, potential additional water and food needed, etc. Include discussion of any problems or issues that you might anticipate.

ANS: See pp. 25-26.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 25-26

  1. Suppose that you are hired as a consultant by a new start-up bakery that is owned by a friend of yours. He would like you to conduct physical testing for the following new food items that he would like to introduce to the public in the near future: chocolate chip cookies, vanilla pudding, cheddar cheese crackers, carrot cake cupcakes with cream cheese frosting, and banana protein shakes. For each of these food items, please state which physical test(s) you would plan to conduct and explain the reasoning behind why the tests that you selected are needed.

ANS: See pp. 26-27.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 26-27

  1. Suppose that you are interested in interviewing for a job that you saw offered on your school’s job website. It is for a commercial laboratory that conducts chemical tests for food evaluation. Before the interview, you want to familiarize yourself with the variety of chemical tests. Describe several examples of chemical tests, explain what they measure and how, and discuss where and in what context they would be used.

ANS: See pp. 27-28.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 27-28

Ready-to-Use Chapter 2 Test

Multiple Choice

  1. Subjective evaluation is
  2. evaluation of food quality that relies on numbers generated by laboratory instruments.
  3. evaluation or sensory tests that rely on the opinions of individuals.
  4. tests used to detail the specific tastes of individual foods.
  5. a sequence of tests that document the characteristics of food preparation.
  6. In objective evaluations
  7. instruments rather than humans are used to measure the characteristics of foods qualitatively.
  8. humans rather than instruments are used to measure the characteristics of foods quantitatively.
  9. laboratory instruments instead of humans are used to measure the characteristics of foods quantitatively.
  10. a sequence of tests are used to document the characteristics of food preparation using humans as taste testers.
  11. Objective analysis measures
  12. the responses of people to food products as perceived by sight.
  13. the responses of people to food products as perceived by taste.
  14. the responses of people to food products as perceived by touch.
  15. the responses of people to food products as perceived by smell.
  16. all of the above answers are correct
  17. none of the above answers is correct
  18. Hedonic testing relates to
  19. pleasure.
  20. selecting the preferred sample.
  21. paired preference testing.
  22. all of the above answers are correct
  23. A 9-point scale ranging from “Like Extremely” to “Dislike Extremely” best describes
  24. discriminative tests.
  25. descriptive tests.
  26. analytical tests.
  27. none of the above answers is correct
  28. A(n) _____ test usually uses words like “weak,” “moderate,” and “strong” to describe samples that differ in magnitude of an attribute.
  29. ranking
  30. duo-trio
  31. ordinal
  32. paired comparison
  33. Which of the following would be used to test for sensitivity?
  34. triangle
  35. duo-trio
  36. threshold
  37. all of the above answers are correct
  38. A _____ test is used to find the minimal detectable level of a substance.
  39. hedonic
  40. dilution
  41. difference
  42. none of the above answers are correct
  43. _____ tests rely on a trained panel to document differences in a product’s sensory characteristics.
  44. Discriminative
  45. Descriptive
  46. Affective
  47. None of the above answers is correct
  48. General taste panels usually consist of at least _____ individuals.
  49. 2
  50. 5
  51. 7
  52. 10
  53. 13
  54. Which of the following is not a criterion for a general taste panel?
  55. chew no gum immediately before testing
  56. have not ingested other food for at least 4 hours before testing
  57. are nonsmokers
  58. are of an equal distribution in gender
  59. all of the above answers are criteria for a general taste panel
  60. Which statement is incorrect regarding food samples?
  61. There must be only enough food for one bite.
  62. Samples must be taken from the same portion of the food.
  63. Food is usually placed in clear or white containers.
  64. Lighting in the room is uniform and the temperature is comfortable.
  65. all of the above statements are correct regarding food samples
  66. The best time for taste panels to sample food is
  67. early morning before breakfast.
  68. mid-morning or mid-afternoon.
  69. when panelists are hungry.
  70. when panelists are full.
  71. The penetrometer, the Warner-Bratzler shear, and the shortometer are all used to perform physical tests for
  72. visual evaluation.
  73. weight/volume measurements.
  74. texture measurements.
  75. viscosity measurements.
  76. concentration measurements.
  77. Rheology is
  78. the study of the flow of and deformation of matter.
  79. a measure of three-dimensional space that is often used to measure liquids.
  80. the concentration of matter measured by the amount of mass per unit volume.
  81. a type of bioactive compound (nutrient or non-nutrient) that has health benefits.
  82. none of the above answers is correct
  83. The viscosity of fluids can determine all of the following except
  84. how easily guacamole dip is deposited on tortilla chips.
  85. how smoothly mayonnaise spreads onto a slice of bread.
  86. how long a tomato will hold its shape.
  87. how tender a pie pastry feels to the teeth.
  88. Which of the following chemical tests measures the degree of unsaturation in fats?
  89. pH test
  90. iodine value test
  91. peroxide value test
  92. chromatography
  93. fuchsin test
  94. Which instrument or test would be used to observe microorganisms in food?
  95. microscope
  96. atomic absorption
  97. shortometer
  98. viscometer (or viscosimeter)
  99. Which of the following are not measured by physical testing?
  100. size and shape
  101. weight, volume, and density
  102. moisture, texture, and viscosity
  103. nutrient and nonnutrient substances
  104. Descriptive testing used to detail the specific flavors or textures of a food or beverage would use
  105. hedonic tests.
  106. threshold and dilution tests.
  107. flavor and texture profiles.
  108. personal preference tests.

True/False

  1. Objective tests conducted for research and development (R&D) rely on the opinions of highly trained individuals.
  2. Human taste panels are required to evaluate products using various types of established scientific objective tests.
  3. Regarding sensory testing, affective tests are used to detect “differences.”
  4. In regards to subjective testing, effective tests are used to detect “individual preferences.”
  5. When scoring/evaluating for consumer testing with children, “smiley” or “frowny” faces can be used for scoring in lieu of the hedonic scale.
  6. Males can usually detect sweetness better than females.
  7. Whether or not a person prefers a certain aspect of a food is a focus of effective testing.
  8. Objective analytical tests are usually conducted by an untrained panel that evaluates food products through either discriminative or descriptive testing.
  9. The Association of Official Analytical Chemists (AOAC) International publishes a book on chemical tests.
  10. The nature, concentration, and temperature of a liquid all affect its viscosity.

Matching: Physical Tests for Food Evaluation

Definition choices:

  1. used to measure mineral content
  2. measures the concentration of various organic compounds, especially sugar
  3. measures the consistency of batters and other viscous foods
  4. measures color by detecting the amount and wavelength of light transmitted through a solution
  5. measures tenderness by determining the resistance of baked goods such as cookies, pastries, and crackers to breakage
  6. polarimeter
  7. shortometer
  8. atomic absorption
  9. spectrophotometer
  10. line-spread test

Discussion

  1. Define objective and subjective evaluation of foods. Give several examples of tests of each type, explaining the differences between them.
  2. Design a product score sheet to be used by both adults and children for the pecan brownies that you plan to sell and distribute to Whole Foods grocery stores. You will use the results of this affective testing to prove to Whole Foods that your product belongs in their stores.
  3. You have been asked by the manager of your school cafeteria to design and conduct a taste panel for their new macaroni and cheese recipe. Describe the general guidelines that you are going to follow when setting up and conducting this taste panel. Consider seating arrangements, room temperature and lighting, time of tastings, portion sizes and containers, potential additional water and food needed, etc. Include discussion of any problems or issues that you might anticipate.
  4. Suppose that you are hired as a consultant by a new start-up bakery that is owned by a friend of yours. He would like you to conduct physical testing for the following new food items that he would like to introduce to the public in the near future: chocolate chip cookies, vanilla pudding, cheddar cheese crackers, carrot cake cupcakes with cream cheese frosting, and banana protein shakes. For each of these food items, please state which physical test(s) you would plan to conduct and explain the reasoning behind why the tests that you selected are needed.
  5. Suppose that you are interested in interviewing for a job that you saw offered on your school’s job website. It is for a commercial laboratory that conducts chemical tests for food evaluation. Before the interview, you want to familiarize yourself with the variety of chemical tests. Describe several examples of chemical tests, explain what they measure and how, and discuss where and in what context they would be used.

[1] By Dr. Joan Aronson of New York University. A ready-to-use test (the same questions reformatted for printing out as a test) is provided at the end of this document.

Test Bank[1] for Chapter 4 – Food Safety

Key to question information: ANS = correct answer; DIF = question difficulty; REF = page reference

Multiple Choice

  1. Reasons that the United States food supply is among the safest in the world include
  2. stringent federal and state legislation.
  3. inspection at all levels of food production and distribution.
  4. tracking of causal factors of foodborne illness outbreaks by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
  5. the fact that food manufacturers and distributors are motivated to avoid negligence lawsuits.
  6. all of the above

ANS: e       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 66

  1. Which of these individuals would be least susceptible to foodborne illnesses?
  2. a six-month-old infant
  3. an eighteen-year-old teenager
  4. a twenty-eight-year-old male with AIDS
  5. a forty-year-old woman with breast cancer
  6. an eighty-year-old grandparent

ANS: b       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 67

  1. Biological hazards that may cause foodborne illness include all of the following EXCEPT
  2. bacteria.
  3. molds.
  4. viruses.
  5. parasites.
  6. prions.
  7. pesticides.

ANS: f        DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 67

  1. Foodborne illnesses from chemical hazards include all of the following EXCEPT
  2. plant toxins.
  3. animal toxins.
  4. agricultural chemicals.
  5. prions.
  6. industrial chemicals.

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 67|76-77

  1. Physical hazards that may cause foodborne illness include all of the following EXCEPT
  2. glass, bones, and metals.
  3. incidental physical particles from the manufacturing process.
  4. plastics.
  5. toxic residues from the manufacturing process.

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 67|78

  1. The majority of foodborne illness is caused by _____.
  2. bacteria
  3. viruses
  4. parasites
  5. industrial chemicals

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 67

  1. Salmonella infection is one of the most common foodborne illnesses and _____ are particularly likely to be contaminated with it.
  2. fish
  3. vegetable casseroles
  4. poultry and eggs
  5. fruit drinks
  6. pasteurized milk and dairy products

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 68|70

  1. Sources of _____ contamination include pet turtles, iguanas, and other reptiles.
  2. Salmonella
  3. Listeria monocytogenes
  4. Yersinia enterocolitica
  5. Shigella

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 70

  1. Consequences of _____ infection may include pneumonia, septicemia, urethritis, meningitis, and spontaneous abortion.
  2. Salmonella
  3. Listeria monocytogenes
  4. Yersinia entrocolitica
  5. Shigella

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 70

  1. Which of the following bacteria is facultative and can thrive at refrigerator temperatures?
  2. Salmonella
  3. Listeria monocytogenes
  4. Yersinia enterocolitica
  5. Shigella

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 70

  1. Which of the following bacterial species is destroyed by thorough cooking yet grows at refrigerator temperatures?
  2. Yersinia enterocolitica
  3. Staphylococcus aureus
  4. Clostridium botulinum
  5. Escherichia coli O157:H7

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 68|70

  1. Poor personal hygiene by food handlers is the number-one cause of _____.
  2. Salmonella
  3. Listeria monocytogenes
  4. Yersinia enterocolitica
  5. Shigella

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 71

  1. A food handler who scratches an infected pimple on his face, coughs or sneezes into his hand, or has a small unprotected cut on his hand may transmit _____ to foods if he practices poor personal hygiene habits.
  2. Listeria monocytogenes
  3. Yersinia enterocolitica
  4. Staphylococcus aureus
  5. Clostridium botulinum

ANS: c       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 71

  1. The most common cause of botulism is
  2. tomato sauce.
  3. improperly home-canned food.
  4. commercially prepared foods that are time-temperature abused.
  5. poor personal hygiene by food handlers.

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 71

  1. Which practice can help prevent intoxication from Staphylococcus aureus?
  2. cooking chicken to a minimum internal temperature of 165 degrees F
  3. only purchasing seafood from a reliable fish market that is in compliance with local, state, and federal law
  4. proper hand washing after coughing or sneezing
  5. discarding any cans that are dented, have leaky seals, or bulge

ANS: c       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 71

  1. Sources for _____ outbreaks include undercooked ground beef, unpasteurized dairy products and apple juice, fresh produce, and water.
  2. Shigella
  3. E. coli O157:H7
  4. Yersinia enterocolitica
  5. Listeria monocytogenes

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 72

  1. The foods most likely to be contaminated with aflatoxin are
  2. breads.
  3. jams and jellies.
  4. peanuts and grains.
  5. ham, bacon, and salami.

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 73

  1. Unlike bacteria, _____ exhibit “bloom” on foods.
  2. molds
  3. yeasts
  4. viruses
  5. all of the above answers are correct

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 73

  1. Which of the following needs a living cell in order to multiply?
  2. mold
  3. yeast
  4. virus
  5. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 73

  1. Which of the following cheeses have to be discarded if mold is discovered on them?
  2. Roquefort, Brie, and Camembert cheeses
  3. cheddar and Swiss cheeses
  4. cottage and cream cheeses
  5. all of the above cheeses should be discarded

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 73

  1. Shellfish is a major carrier of
  2. Vibrio.
  3. hepatitis A.
  4. norovirus.
  5. all of the above answers are correct

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 73|74

  1. Which of the following infections can result from eating undercooked pork?
  2. Trichinella spiralis
  3. Anisakis simplex
  4. Pseudoterranova dicipiens
  5. Giardia lamblia

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 74

  1. Which of the following is the most common one-celled animal that frequently infects humans through contaminated water?
  2. Giardia
  3. Cryptosporidium
  4. Cyclospora
  5. all of the above answers are correct

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 74-75

  1. In mad cow disease or bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) the incubation period between infection and manifestation can be
  2. months.
  3. years.
  4. decades.
  5. all of the above answers are correct
  6. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 76

  1. The best way to help prevent foodborne illness from fish such as mahi mahi, tuna, mackerel, sardines, and herring is to
  2. cook fish to the proper minimum internal temperature.
  3. smell the fish and, if it has any ammonia odor, do not purchase or cook the fish.
  4. freeze the fish in advance of preparing it.
  5. purchase it from a reliable fish purveyor.

ANS: d       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 77

  1. _____ poisoning is caused by ingesting predatory tropical reef fish that contain a ciguatoxin that is not destroyed by heating.
  2. Ciguatera
  3. Histamine
  4. Scombroid
  5. Pufferfish

ANS: a       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 77

  1. Which of the following foodborne illnesses is caused by time/temperature abuse?
  2. Ciguatera poisoning
  3. Histamine poisoning
  4. Pufferfish poisoning
  5. Red tide poisoning

ANS: b       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 77

  1. Cross-contamination refers to
  2. the transfer of bacteria or other microorganisms from one food to another.
  3. the transfer of microorganisms from animals to humans only.
  4. the prohibition of microorganism movement.
  5. the intentional movement of a microorganism to a person.

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 79

  1. Which of the following hand-/utensil-to-mouth movements is acceptable?
  2. chewing gum in the food preparation area
  3. eating in the food preparation area
  4. double dipping
  5. all of the above answers are correct
  6. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: e       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 80

  1. A FALCPA statement is required on _____.
  2. seafood collected from red tide areas
  3. unpasteurized juices
  4. foods that contain peanuts
  5. low-acid canned foods

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 78

  1. To ensure maximum effect from hand washing, the routine should consist of washing up to the elbow for at least _____ seconds.
  2. 10
  3. 20
  4. 40
  5. 50

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 80

  1. Regarding hand washing, which of the following statements is incorrect?
  2. When food handlers answer a telephone with their hands, they must wash their hands before food is touched.
  3. Disposable paper towels or air drying is preferred over cloth.
  4. Hand sanitizers assist in reducing bacterial numbers and may be used in lieu of hand washing.
  5. Hand washing sinks must only be used for washing hands.

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 80

  1. Which of the following is usually not a high-risk food?
  2. tofu
  3. beef jerky
  4. broth or stock
  5. hollandaise sauce

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 80-82

  1. Bacteria grow best in foods with a water activity (aw) level of
  2. 0.0 to 0.25.
  3. 0.25 to 0.59.
  4. 0.59 to 0.85.
  5. 0.85 to 0.97.
  6. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 82

  1. Which of the following foods is the least susceptible to foodborne illness?
  2. foil-wrapped baked potatoes
  3. homemade chopped garlic-in-oil mixture
  4. bacon cooked to a crisp
  5. fresh apple cider

ANS: c       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 82

  1. According to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), which of the following foods is not in the temperature danger zone?
  2. roast beef sandwich standing at 38 degrees F
  3. cooked rice standing at 45 degrees F
  4. baked potato standing at 115 degrees F
  5. pasta and vegetable salad standing at 128 degrees F

ANS: a       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 83

  1. Bacteria multiply to reproduce, resulting in _____ of bacteria from just one cell in less than 24 hours.
  2. hundreds
  3. thousands
  4. millions
  5. billions

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 84

  1. Which of the following is not an acceptable method for thawing a small food item such as a chicken breast?
  2. as part of the cooking process
  3. at room temperature
  4. in a microwave oven, followed by immediate cooking
  5. submerged under cold running water
  6. in a refrigerator
  7. all of the above answers are acceptable thawing methods

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 85

  1. Which of the following statements regarding calibration of thermometers is correct?
  2. Thermometers can be calibrated by an ice-water method using a 50% ice/50% water mixture at least 2 inches deep.
  3. Thermometers can be calibrated by a boiling-water method at 212 degrees F.
  4. Thermometers should be calibrated before the work shift begins.
  5. If a thermometer is dropped on the floor, it should be re-calibrated.
  6. all of the above answers are correct

ANS: e       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 86|88-89

  1. Which of the following is not a safe option when cooling foods?
  2. blast chiller
  3. ice-water bath with stirring
  4. placing the food in large, deep containers
  5. dividing the food into small portions
  6. all of the above answers are safe options for cooling foods

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 89|90

  1. Regarding reheating, all hot foods must be reheated to a minimum internal temperature of _____°F for at least _____ seconds.
  2. 145; 15
  3. 155; 30
  4. 165; 15
  5. 175; 30

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 89

  1. Which of the following is not a chemical sanitizer used in commercial food establishments?
  2. chlorine
  3. iodine
  4. quaternary ammonium compounds
  5. organic acids
  6. fluorine

ANS: e       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 91

  1. _____ are especially drawn to food crumbs and often regurgitate while eating.
  2. Cockroaches
  3. Rodents
  4. Birds
  5. Pantry pests

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 91

  1. One of the more common local types of food safety monitoring for a food service facility is the _____.
  2. CDC evaluation.
  3. health department inspection.
  4. World Health Organization reports.
  5. county mortality statistics.

ANS: b       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 92

True/False

  1. The individuals in the United States most severely affected by foodborne illnesses are the young, the old, and those with compromised immune systems.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 67

  1. The number one cause of foodborne illnesses in the United States is bacteria.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 67

  1. Listeria monocytogenes is one of the few bacteria who can thrive at refrigerator temperatures.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 70

  1. The rarest form of foodborne illness is caused by a bacterium known as Escherichia coli.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 71-72

  1. One of the reasons that intoxication from molds is often avoided is that large groupings of molds exhibit a visible bloom.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 73

  1. Foodborne viruses are not transmitted via the oral-fecal route.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 73

  1. HACCP stands for Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 92

  1. National surveillance information for foodborne illnesses ultimately goes to federal offices such as the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 94

  1. As long as “first in, first out” (FIFO) is followed, perishable foods can be held in the freezer or in storage under dry conditions for an unlimited period of time.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 84

  1. Any perishable food exposed to the temperature danger zone for more than two hours of continuous or four hours of cumulative time should be thrown away.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 84

  1. The temperature needed for the destruction of microorganisms is the same regardless of the type of food.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 83-84|85-86

  1. A chicken bone found in a boneless breast of chicken sandwich is considered to be a biological contaminant.

ANS: F       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 78

  1. A fishbone found in a fish fillet sandwich is an example of a physical contaminant.

ANS: T       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 78

  1. Potentially hazardous food should be reheated to a minimum of 175 degrees F.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 86|89

Matching

Definition choices:

  1. foodborne illness that occurs when bacteria enter the intestines, then produce a toxin
  2. foodborne illness resulting from the ingestion of food containing large numbers of living microorganisms that grow and multiply in your intestines
  3. disease-causing
  4. illness resulting from ingestion of food containing a toxin
  5. an infectious protein particle that does not contain RNA or DNA
  6. pathogenic
  7. prion
  8. food infection
  9. food intoxication
  10. toxin-mediated infection

Key:

  1. ANS: c DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 67
  2. ANS: e DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 75
  3. ANS: b DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 68
  4. ANS: d DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 68
  5. ANS: a DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 68

Discussion

  1. Food type, pH or acidity level, moisture content, time left in the temperature danger zone, and oxygen requirements all contribute to determining whether a food is potentially hazardous. Discuss these requirements for bacterial growth and their specific characteristics. Utilizing these factors, how can one reduce the bacterial growth in broiled chicken, vegetable soup, and/or beef lasagna from purchasing to service?

ANS: See pp. 80-86 and 89.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 80-86|89

  1. What is the HACCP system and what do the letters HACCP stand for? Describe the seven steps in order, how this system evolved, and what factors make it so successful.

ANS: See pp. 92.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 92

  1. What makes a food potentially hazardous? Name ten food items that are potentially hazardous.

ANS: See pp. 80-82.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 80-82

  1. What is an outbreak? What are the differences between food infections, food intoxications, and toxin-mediated infections? Give at least four examples of each one.

ANS: See pp. 66-73.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 66-73

  1. Make a personal hygiene checklist of specific guidelines for the individual food handler, and for her or his food handling practices when both working in the kitchen and serving guests food and beverages.

ANS: See pp. 79-80.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 79-80

  1. Which foodborne illnesses can be traced directly to poor personal hygiene behaviors such as improper hand washing?

ANS: See pp. 67-75 and 79-80.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 67-75|79-80

  1. Name food infections, food intoxications, and toxin-mediated infections that are common to fish and shellfish and list their individual characteristics. List and describe the individual characteristics of viruses that are common to fish and shellfish. What parasites may cause foodborne illness in fish and shellfish? How can a chef or food service manager avoid making their customers sick from these toxins, infections, viruses, and parasites?

ANS: See pp. 67-75 and 77-78.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 67-75|77-78

Ready-to-Use Chapter 4 Test

Multiple Choice

  1. Reasons that the United States food supply is among the safest in the world include
  2. stringent federal and state legislation.
  3. inspection at all levels of food production and distribution.
  4. tracking of causal factors of foodborne illness outbreaks by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
  5. the fact that food manufacturers and distributors are motivated to avoid negligence lawsuits.
  6. all of the above
  7. Which of these individuals would be least susceptible to foodborne illnesses?
  8. a six-month-old infant
  9. an eighteen-year-old teenager
  10. a twenty-eight-year-old male with AIDS
  11. a forty-year-old woman with breast cancer
  12. an eighty-year-old grandparent
  13. Biological hazards that may cause foodborne illness include all of the following EXCEPT
  14. bacteria.
  15. molds.
  16. viruses.
  17. parasites.
  18. prions.
  19. pesticides.
  20. Foodborne illnesses from chemical hazards include all of the following EXCEPT
  21. plant toxins.
  22. animal toxins.
  23. agricultural chemicals.
  24. prions.
  25. industrial chemicals.
  26. Physical hazards that may cause foodborne illness include all of the following EXCEPT
  27. glass, bones, and metals.
  28. incidental physical particles from the manufacturing process.
  29. plastics.
  30. toxic residues from the manufacturing process.
  31. The majority of foodborne illness is caused by _____.
  32. bacteria
  33. viruses
  34. parasites
  35. industrial chemicals
  36. Salmonella infection is one of the most common foodborne illnesses and _____ are particularly likely to be contaminated with it.
  37. fish
  38. vegetable casseroles
  39. poultry and eggs
  40. fruit drinks
  41. pasteurized milk and dairy products
  42. Sources of _____ contamination include pet turtles, iguanas, and other reptiles.
  43. Salmonella
  44. Listeria monocytogenes
  45. Yersinia enterocolitica
  46. Shigella
  47. Consequences of _____ infection may include pneumonia, septicemia, urethritis, meningitis, and spontaneous abortion.
  48. Salmonella
  49. Listeria monocytogenes
  50. Yersinia entrocolitica
  51. Shigella
  52. Which of the following bacteria is facultative and can thrive at refrigerator temperatures?
  53. Salmonella
  54. Listeria monocytogenes
  55. Yersinia enterocolitica
  56. Shigella
  57. Which of the following bacterial species is destroyed by thorough cooking yet grows at refrigerator temperatures?
  58. Yersinia enterocolitica
  59. Staphylococcus aureus
  60. Clostridium botulinum
  61. Escherichia coli O157:H7
  62. Poor personal hygiene by food handlers is the number-one cause of _____.
  63. Salmonella
  64. Listeria monocytogenes
  65. Yersinia enterocolitica
  66. Shigella
  67. A food handler who scratches an infected pimple on his face, coughs or sneezes into his hand, or has a small unprotected cut on his hand may transmit _____ to foods if he practices poor personal hygiene habits.
  68. Listeria monocytogenes
  69. Yersinia enterocolitica
  70. Staphylococcus aureus
  71. Clostridium botulinum
  72. The most common cause of botulism is
  73. tomato sauce.
  74. improperly home-canned food.
  75. commercially prepared foods that are time-temperature abused.
  76. poor personal hygiene by food handlers.
  77. Which practice can help prevent intoxication from Staphylococcus aureus?
  78. cooking chicken to a minimum internal temperature of 165 degrees F
  79. only purchasing seafood from a reliable fish market that is in compliance with local, state, and federal law
  80. proper hand washing after coughing or sneezing
  81. discarding any cans that are dented, have leaky seals, or bulge
  82. Sources for _____ outbreaks include undercooked ground beef, unpasteurized dairy products and apple juice, fresh produce, and water.
  83. Shigella
  84. E. coli O157:H7
  85. Yersinia enterocolitica
  86. Listeria monocytogenes
  87. The foods most likely to be contaminated with aflatoxin are
  88. breads.
  89. jams and jellies.
  90. peanuts and grains.
  91. ham, bacon, and salami.
  92. Unlike bacteria, _____ exhibit “bloom” on foods.
  93. molds
  94. yeasts
  95. viruses
  96. all of the above answers are correct
  97. Which of the following needs a living cell in order to multiply?
  98. mold
  99. yeast
  100. virus
  101. none of the above answers is correct
  102. Which of the following cheeses have to be discarded if mold is discovered on them?
  103. Roquefort, Brie, and Camembert cheeses
  104. cheddar and Swiss cheeses
  105. cottage and cream cheeses
  106. all of the above cheeses should be discarded
  107. Shellfish is a major carrier of
  108. Vibrio.
  109. hepatitis A.
  110. norovirus.
  111. all of the above answers are correct
  112. Which of the following infections can result from eating undercooked pork?
  113. Trichinella spiralis
  114. Anisakis simplex
  115. Pseudoterranova dicipiens
  116. Giardia lamblia
  117. Which of the following is the most common one-celled animal that frequently infects humans through contaminated water?
  118. Giardia
  119. Cryptosporidium
  120. Cyclospora
  121. all of the above answers are correct
  122. In mad cow disease or bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) the incubation period between infection and manifestation can be
  123. months.
  124. years.
  125. decades.
  126. all of the above answers are correct
  127. none of the above answers is correct
  128. The best way to help prevent foodborne illness from fish such as mahi mahi, tuna, mackerel, sardines, and herring is to
  129. cook fish to the proper minimum internal temperature.
  130. smell the fish and, if it has any ammonia odor, do not purchase or cook the fish.
  131. freeze the fish in advance of preparing it.
  132. purchase it from a reliable fish purveyor.
  133. _____ poisoning is caused by ingesting predatory tropical reef fish that contain a ciguatoxin that is not destroyed by heating.
  134. Ciguatera
  135. Histamine
  136. Scombroid
  137. Pufferfish
  138. Which of the following foodborne illnesses is caused by time/temperature abuse?
  139. Ciguatera poisoning
  140. Histamine poisoning
  141. Pufferfish poisoning
  142. Red tide poisoning
  143. Cross-contamination refers to
  144. the transfer of bacteria or other microorganisms from one food to another.
  145. the transfer of microorganisms from animals to humans only.
  146. the prohibition of microorganism movement.
  147. the intentional movement of a microorganism to a person.
  148. Which of the following hand-/utensil-to-mouth movements is acceptable?
  149. chewing gum in the food preparation area
  150. eating in the food preparation area
  151. double dipping
  152. all of the above answers are correct
  153. none of the above answers is correct
  154. A FALCPA statement is required on _____.
  155. seafood collected from red tide areas
  156. unpasteurized juices
  157. foods that contain peanuts
  158. low-acid canned foods
  159. To ensure maximum effect from hand washing, the routine should consist of washing up to the elbow for at least _____ seconds.
  160. 10
  161. 20
  162. 40
  163. 50
  164. Regarding hand washing, which of the following statements is incorrect?
  165. When food handlers answer a telephone with their hands, they must wash their hands before food is touched.
  166. Disposable paper towels or air drying is preferred over cloth.
  167. Hand sanitizers assist in reducing bacterial numbers and may be used in lieu of hand washing.
  168. Hand washing sinks must only be used for washing hands.
  169. Which of the following is usually not a high-risk food?
  170. tofu
  171. beef jerky
  172. broth or stock
  173. hollandaise sauce
  174. Bacteria grow best in foods with a water activity (aw) level of
  175. 0.0 to 0.25.
  176. 0.25 to 0.59.
  177. 0.59 to 0.85.
  178. 0.85 to 0.97.
  179. none of the above answers is correct
  180. Which of the following foods is the least susceptible to foodborne illness?
  181. foil-wrapped baked potatoes
  182. homemade chopped garlic-in-oil mixture
  183. bacon cooked to a crisp
  184. fresh apple cider
  185. According to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), which of the following foods is not in the temperature danger zone?
  186. roast beef sandwich standing at 38 degrees F
  187. cooked rice standing at 45 degrees F
  188. baked potato standing at 115 degrees F
  189. pasta and vegetable salad standing at 128 degrees F
  190. Bacteria multiply to reproduce, resulting in _____ of bacteria from just one cell in less than 24 hours.
  191. hundreds
  192. thousands
  193. millions
  194. billions
  195. Which of the following is not an acceptable method for thawing a small food item such as a chicken breast?
  196. as part of the cooking process
  197. at room temperature
  198. in a microwave oven, followed by immediate cooking
  199. submerged under cold running water
  200. in a refrigerator
  201. all of the above answers are acceptable thawing methods
  202. Which of the following statements regarding calibration of thermometers is correct?
  203. Thermometers can be calibrated by an ice-water method using a 50% ice/50% water mixture at least 2 inches deep.
  204. Thermometers can be calibrated by a boiling-water method at 212 degrees F.
  205. Thermometers should be calibrated before the work shift begins.
  206. If a thermometer is dropped on the floor, it should be re-calibrated.
  207. all of the above answers are correct
  208. Which of the following is not a safe option when cooling foods?
  209. blast chiller
  210. ice-water bath with stirring
  211. placing the food in large, deep containers
  212. dividing the food into small portions
  213. all of the above answers are safe options for cooling foods
  214. Regarding reheating, all hot foods must be reheated to a minimum internal temperature of _____°F for at least _____ seconds.
  215. 145; 15
  216. 155; 30
  217. 165; 15
  218. 175; 30
  219. Which of the following is not a chemical sanitizer used in commercial food establishments?
  220. chlorine
  221. iodine
  222. quaternary ammonium compounds
  223. organic acids
  224. fluorine
  225. _____ are especially drawn to food crumbs and often regurgitate while eating.
  226. Cockroaches
  227. Rodents
  228. Birds
  229. Pantry pests
  230. One of the more common local types of food safety monitoring for a food service facility is the _____.
  231. CDC evaluation.
  232. health department inspection.
  233. World Health Organization reports.
  234. county mortality statistics.

True/False

  1. The individuals in the United States most severely affected by foodborne illnesses are the young, the old, and those with compromised immune systems.
  2. The number one cause of foodborne illnesses in the United States is bacteria.
  3. Listeria monocytogenes is one of the few bacteria who can thrive at refrigerator temperatures.
  4. The rarest form of foodborne illness is caused by a bacterium known as Escherichia coli.
  5. One of the reasons that intoxication from molds is often avoided is that large groupings of molds exhibit a visible bloom.
  6. Foodborne viruses are not transmitted via the oral-fecal route.
  7. HACCP stands for Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points.
  8. National surveillance information for foodborne illnesses ultimately goes to federal offices such as the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
  9. As long as “first in, first out” (FIFO) is followed, perishable foods can be held in the freezer or in storage under dry conditions for an unlimited period of time.
  10. Any perishable food exposed to the temperature danger zone for more than two hours of continuous or four hours of cumulative time should be thrown away.
  11. The temperature needed for the destruction of microorganisms is the same regardless of the type of food.
  12. A chicken bone found in a boneless breast of chicken sandwich is considered to be a biological contaminant.
  13. A fishbone found in a fish fillet sandwich is an example of a physical contaminant.
  14. Potentially hazardous food should be reheated to a minimum of 175 degrees F.

Matching

Definition choices:

  1. foodborne illness that occurs when bacteria enter the intestines, then produce a toxin
  2. foodborne illness resulting from the ingestion of food containing large numbers of living microorganisms that grow and multiply in your intestines
  3. disease-causing
  4. illness resulting from ingestion of food containing a toxin
  5. an infectious protein particle that does not contain RNA or DNA
  6. pathogenic
  7. prion
  8. food infection
  9. food intoxication
  10. toxin-mediated infection

Discussion

  1. Food type, pH or acidity level, moisture content, time left in the temperature danger zone, and oxygen requirements all contribute to determining whether a food is potentially hazardous. Discuss these requirements for bacterial growth and their specific characteristics. Utilizing these factors, how can one reduce the bacterial growth in broiled chicken, vegetable soup, and/or beef lasagna from purchasing to service?
  2. What is the HACCP system and what do the letters HACCP stand for? Describe the seven steps in order, how this system evolved, and what factors make it so successful.
  3. What makes a food potentially hazardous? Name ten food items that are potentially hazardous.
  4. What is an outbreak? What are the differences between food infections, food intoxications, and toxin-mediated infections? Give at least four examples of each one.
  5. Make a personal hygiene checklist of specific guidelines for the individual food handler, and for her or his food handling practices when both working in the kitchen and serving guests food and beverages.
  6. Which foodborne illnesses can be traced directly to poor personal hygiene behaviors such as improper hand washing?
  7. Name food infections, food intoxications, and toxin-mediated infections that are common to fish and shellfish and list their individual characteristics. List and describe the individual characteristics of viruses that are common to fish and shellfish. What parasites may cause foodborne illness in fish and shellfish? How can a chef or food service manager avoid making their customers sick from these toxins, infections, viruses, and parasites?

[1] By Dr. Joan Aronson of New York University. A ready-to-use test (the same questions reformatted for printing out as a test) is provided at the end of this document.

Test Bank[1] for Chapter 12 – Eggs

Key to question information: ANS = correct answer; DIF = question difficulty; REF = page reference

Multiple Choice

  1. As an ingredient in prepared foods, eggs are one of the most _____ of all ingredients.
  2. complicated to work with
  3. costly
  4. controversial
  5. versatile

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 251

  1. Which of the following is an example of how eggs are used in food preparation?

a    clarifying liquids for soups

  1. leavening ingredients for meatloaf
  2. emulsifying foods prior to breading
  3. lending a foam structure to mayonnaise and hollandaise sauce

ANS: a       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 251

  1. The color of an egg yolk is due to
  2. nutrients in the yolk.
  3. pigments in the chicken feed.
  4. the protein content of the chicken feed.
  5. the water content in the chicken’s diet.

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 252

  1. The chalazae at the top and bottom of the egg
  2. anchor the yolk and secure it to its vitelline membrane so that the yolk stays centered in the middle of the egg.
  3. account for almost three-fifths (58 percent) of an egg’s weight.
  4. are made up largely of water and carbohydrate.
  5. appear darker if the egg has been fertilized.

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 252

  1. The purpose of the shell membranes is to protect the
  2. albumen from rupture.
  3. egg from bacterial invasion.
  4. shell from cracking.
  5. yolk from breaking.

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 252

  1. The air cell develops
  2. before the egg is ready to be laid, when the contents begin to contract.
  3. between the two shell membranes after the egg is laid and the contents contract with cooling.
  4. under the shell at the small end when air is trapped inside and pushes against the contents.
  5. within the outer ring of albumen from air trapped in the yolk.

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 252-253

  1. Which of the following statements about the egg shell is false?
  2. The calcium carbonate shell is 12 percent of an egg’s weight.
  3. Brown-shell eggs have a higher nutrient content than white-shell eggs.
  4. The shell is protected by the cuticle or bloom.
  5. The protective cuticle is removed in commercially sold eggs; however, producers compensate for this loss by applying a coat of oil on the shell.

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 253

  1. Which of the following is an egg protein that acts as an emulsifier in food preparation?
  2. ovotransferrin (conalbumin)
  3. ovomucoid
  4. avidin
  5. lipovitellin

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 252

  1. Eggs are required to be inspected and found to be wholesome, unadulterated, and truthfully labeled under
  2. the Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906.
  3. the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938.
  4. the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act of 1966.
  5. the Egg Products Inspection Act of 1970.

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 253

  1. Which of the following is not an example of a restricted egg?
  2. eggs with cracked shells, called “checks”
  3. eggs with cracked shells and broken membranes, called “leakers”
  4. eggs with at least one-fourth of their shell covered with dirt or stain, called “dirties”
  5. eggs with green halos, called “greenies”

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 253

  1. USDA Grade B eggs
  2. are the lowest grade sold to supermarkets.
  3. have thinner whites and somewhat flattened yolks.
  4. are more suitable for frying, coddling, and poaching.
  5. can be graded by the producer without inspection.

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 253|254

  1. Grades for eggs are determined by
  2. candling.
  3. evaluating the appearance.
  4. measuring the Haugh units.
  5. all of the above

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 253-254

  1. When eggs are overcooked
  2. the fat-soluble vitamins—A, D, E, and K—are lost.
  3. the minerals, especially selenium, iodine, zinc, iron, and copper, are lost.
  4. the iron is not very available because, when exposed to heat, it binds to an egg protein that inhibits absorption.
  5. the iron in the yolk is transformed into ferrous sulfide, causing an unpleasant flavor.

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 263

  1. The basis for the size of an egg is the
  2. shell-to-white ratio measured when the egg is candled.
  3. yolk-to-white ratio measured when the egg is broken out.
  4. minimum weight of a dozen eggs in their shells.
  5. all of the above
  6. none of the above

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 255

  1. Liquid egg substitutes are made by which of the following procedures?
  2. omission of the yolk
  3. replacement of egg yolks with vegetable fats
  4. removal of some of the cholesterol from the yolk
  5. all of the above

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 255

  1. Liquid egg substitutes
  2. are lower in sodium than regular eggs.
  3. have a four-month shelf-life.
  4. are irradiated and usually used for baked goods such as cakes and cookies.
  5. are used when raw eggs would pose a food safety risk.

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 255

  1. Value-added eggs have special attributes due to their nutrient content or because of the way that they are raised. For example, some have
  2. higher cholesterol levels.
  3. lower omega-3-fatty acid levels.
  4. been fed animal products.
  5. higher vitamin E levels.
  6. none of the above

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 255-256

  1. The high protein content in whole eggs makes them excellent
  2. binders.
  3. emulsifiers.
  4. coloring agents.
  5. all of the above

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 256

  1. The best temperature for beating egg whites into a stable foam is
  2. refrigerator temperature.
  3. tepid temperature.
  4. room temperature.
  5. none of the above

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 258-259

  1. Factors that yield the best possible egg-white foam include
  2. whipping the whites into very large bubbles.
  3. whites that quickly slide out of a bowl when it is turned upside down.
  4. using deep bowls with rounded bottoms sloping up into the sides.
  5. using plastic bowls because their porous surface may harbor a thin film of grease, which helps stabilize foam formation.

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 258|259

  1. What is the purpose of adding salt to an egg white foam?
  2. to increase foam volume up to 40 percent
  3. no purpose – salt is rarely added to foams
  4. to allow whites to whip into a more stable foam
  5. to act as an interfering agent

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 259

  1. Coagulation temperatures for
  2. egg whites begin at about 140 degrees F.
  3. egg yolks begin at slightly lower temperatures than for whites.
  4. beaten eggs begin at about 144 degrees F.
  5. both egg whites and yolks are the same.

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 260

  1. The difference between French and American omelets is that
  2. French omelets have a little color on the outside, while American omelets are never allowed to brown.
  3. French omelets have texture lines, while American omelets never have texture lines.
  4. American omelets are folded in thirds, while French omelets are folded in half.
  5. American omelet centers are fully cooked while the centers of French omelets are still soft.

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 261-262

  1. The fluffiness of a puffy omelet is achieved by
  2. whipping both yolks and whites together until a dry mass is achieved.
  3. whipping whites until stiff and then folding them into separately whipped yolks.
  4. pouring a whipped egg mixture into a cold omelet pan or a suitable frying pan with sloping sides.
  5. none of the above

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 262

  1. Problems that can occur when preparing hard meringues include
  2. shrinking.
  3. weeping.
  4. beading.
  5. all of the above
  6. none of the above

ANS: e       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 263

  1. The correct way to determine if a soufflé is done is to
  2. continually check for doneness during baking.
  3. stick a toothpick in the center: if it comes out dry, the soufflé is done.
  4. gently shake the oven rack to determine if the soufflé jiggles.
  5. all of the above
  6. none of the above

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 263

  1. When folding egg whites:
  2. with heavier mixtures, it is best to pour the whites over the heavier mixture.
  3. it is best not to rotate the bowl during folding.
  4. once no streaks remain visible in the mixture, complete 5-6 more strokes.
  5. avoid stirring, which will force air out of the egg whites.

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 263

  1. Which of the following statements is correct regarding methods for hard-cooking eggs?
  2. A drawback of the hot-start method is that eggs may crack when lowered into the water.
  3. A drawback of the hot-start method is that the eggs may be more difficult to peel.
  4. A drawback of the cold-start method is that the process requires more attention.
  5. An advantage of the cold-start method is that the egg white by the shell’s surface stays soft and does not overcook.

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 264

  1. When cooking eggs in a microwave,
  2. a browning dish is required for a poached egg.
  3. do not puncture the yolk for shirred eggs.
  4. water, a dash of vinegar, and salt should be added to omelet mixtures before cooking.
  5. microwaving is completed when scrambled eggs are just past the runny stage.
  6. none of the above

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 265

  1. The biggest problem with the safety of eggs is contamination from
  2. Escherichia coli.
  3. Salmonella enteritidis.
  4. Clostridium botulinum.
  5. Clostridium perfringens.

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 267

True/False

  1. The emulsifying agent lecithin is found only in the egg whites.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 256

  1. The binding agent in eggs is the proteins.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 256

  1. The only part of the egg which will produce a stable foam is the white.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 256

  1. Feed for hens laying organic eggs cannot contain any growth hormones.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 257

  1. The best time to add sugar to an egg white foam is near the end of the foam development.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 259

  1. Eggs are frequently used in candies and ice creams because they promote ice and/or sugar crystal formation.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 259

  1. The egg yolks coagulate at a lower temperature than the whites.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 260

  1. The green ring around the yolk in an improperly cooked and/or cooled hard-cooked egg is ferrous sulfide.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 260-261|263

  1. The weeping seen on the tops of meringue pies may be avoided by adding cornstarch to the sugar before beating it into the egg whites.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 263

  1. The main cause of beading on a meringue is undissolved sugar, but overcooking may cause it as well.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 263

  1. The term “hard-boiled eggs” is incorrect because the contents of the egg actually coagulate long before the boiling point is reached.

ANS: T       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 260|263

  1. Fertilized eggs are more nutritious than non-fertilized eggs.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 257

Matching

Definition choices:

  1. the nutrient-dense yellow center of the egg that serves to nourish the developing chick
  2. the egg white, which accounts for approximately three-fifths of the egg’s weight
  3. the waxy outer coating of the egg shell that seals the pores and protects the egg from moisture loss and bacterial contamination
  4. the membrane surrounding the egg yolk and attached to the chalazae
  5. the ropey, twisted strands of albumen that anchor the yolk to the center of the thick egg white
  6. yolk
  7. chalazae
  8. vitelline membrane
  9. cuticle or bloom
  10. albumen

Key:

  1. ANS: a DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 251
  2. ANS: e DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 252
  3. ANS: d DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 252
  4. ANS: c DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 253
  5. ANS: b DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 252

Discussion

  1. Describe the functions of eggs in food preparation; include examples of each of the functions. Be sure the coverage includes all parts of the egg.

ANS: See pp. 251, 256, and 258-259.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 251|256|258-259

  1. Although eggs are considered one of the most problematic foods when it comes to food safety, less than one in 10,000 eggs in the commercial supply is actually contaminated. Why are eggs then such a food safety risk? Explain how the problem occurs.

ANS: See pp. 267-268.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 267-268

  1. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention has implicated eggs as the source for many Salmonella outbreaks; there is an increasing possibility that Listeria monocytogenes may also contribute to future outbreaks. Discuss the precautions that can be taken to prevent foodborne illness from eggs.

ANS: See pp. 267-268; see also Chapter 4.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 267-268

  1. Compare and contrast the different storage guidelines and food preparation uses for fresh, frozen, and dried eggs. Include specific food safety precautions for each category.

ANS: See pp. 266-268.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 266-268

  1. The sous chef at your restaurant claims that she is receiving old eggs from the purveyor that you’ve been using for years. You know that the eggs are fresh. Describe how you could prove to her that you are correct using all possible ways (crack on a plate, hard boil, pH, etc.).

ANS: See pp. 253-254, 256, 259, and 266.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 253-254|256|259|266

  1. Discuss the nutrient content of the various parts of the egg. Why do some consumers use egg substitutes? Compare the nutritional aspects of substitutes such as Egg Beaters to the standard egg. Discuss the advantages and/or disadvantages for using the substitutes or value-added eggs.

ANS: See pp. 252 and 255-256.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 252|255-256

  1. Your prep cook is arranging “hard boiled” eggs on a hors d’oeuvres platter. The yolks are surrounded by a dark green color. You are unhappy with their appearance. What is this discoloration called? What caused this discoloration to occur? Describe all the things that the cook should do next time to prevent this problem from occurring again.

ANS: See pp. 260-261 and 263-264.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 260-261|263-264

Extra Credit Question:

  1. Go to a specialty gourmet store or your butcher and compare as many of the following eggs as possible with your standard shell egg: fertile eggs, organic eggs, free-range eggs, quail eggs, duck eggs, goose eggs, turkey eggs, and ostrich eggs.Crack each egg on a separate plate and compare the similarities and differences.
    Scramble and cook each egg in the same manner. Taste test and find your favorites.

ANS: See p. 257.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 257

Ready-to-Use Chapter 12 Test

Multiple Choice

  1. As an ingredient in prepared foods, eggs are one of the most _____ of all ingredients.
  2. complicated to work with
  3. costly
  4. controversial
  5. versatile
  6. Which of the following is an example of how eggs are used in food preparation?

a    clarifying liquids for soups

  1. leavening ingredients for meatloaf
  2. emulsifying foods prior to breading
  3. lending a foam structure to mayonnaise and hollandaise sauce
  4. The color of an egg yolk is due to
  5. nutrients in the yolk.
  6. pigments in the chicken feed.
  7. the protein content of the chicken feed.
  8. the water content in the chicken’s diet.
  9. The chalazae at the top and bottom of the egg
  10. anchor the yolk and secure it to its vitelline membrane so that the yolk stays centered in the middle of the egg.
  11. account for almost three-fifths (58 percent) of an egg’s weight.
  12. are made up largely of water and carbohydrate.
  13. appear darker if the egg has been fertilized.
  14. The purpose of the shell membranes is to protect the
  15. albumen from rupture.
  16. egg from bacterial invasion.
  17. shell from cracking.
  18. yolk from breaking.
  19. The air cell develops
  20. before the egg is ready to be laid, when the contents begin to contract.
  21. between the two shell membranes after the egg is laid and the contents contract with cooling.
  22. under the shell at the small end when air is trapped inside and pushes against the contents.
  23. within the outer ring of albumen from air trapped in the yolk.
  24. Which of the following statements about the egg shell is false?
  25. The calcium carbonate shell is 12 percent of an egg’s weight.
  26. Brown-shell eggs have a higher nutrient content than white-shell eggs.
  27. The shell is protected by the cuticle or bloom.
  28. The protective cuticle is removed in commercially sold eggs; however, producers compensate for this loss by applying a coat of oil on the shell.
  29. Which of the following is an egg protein that acts as an emulsifier in food preparation?
  30. ovotransferrin (conalbumin)
  31. ovomucoid
  32. avidin
  33. lipovitellin
  34. Eggs are required to be inspected and found to be wholesome, unadulterated, and truthfully labeled under
  35. the Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906.
  36. the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938.
  37. the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act of 1966.
  38. the Egg Products Inspection Act of 1970.
  39. Which of the following is not an example of a restricted egg?
  40. eggs with cracked shells, called “checks”
  41. eggs with cracked shells and broken membranes, called “leakers”
  42. eggs with at least one-fourth of their shell covered with dirt or stain, called “dirties”
  43. eggs with green halos, called “greenies”
  44. USDA Grade B eggs
  45. are the lowest grade sold to supermarkets.
  46. have thinner whites and somewhat flattened yolks.
  47. are more suitable for frying, coddling, and poaching.
  48. can be graded by the producer without inspection.
  49. Grades for eggs are determined by
  50. candling.
  51. evaluating the appearance.
  52. measuring the Haugh units.
  53. all of the above
  54. When eggs are overcooked
  55. the fat-soluble vitamins—A, D, E, and K—are lost.
  56. the minerals, especially selenium, iodine, zinc, iron, and copper, are lost.
  57. the iron is not very available because, when exposed to heat, it binds to an egg protein that inhibits absorption.
  58. the iron in the yolk is transformed into ferrous sulfide, causing an unpleasant flavor.
  59. The basis for the size of an egg is the
  60. shell-to-white ratio measured when the egg is candled.
  61. yolk-to-white ratio measured when the egg is broken out.
  62. minimum weight of a dozen eggs in their shells.
  63. all of the above
  64. none of the above
  65. Liquid egg substitutes are made by which of the following procedures?
  66. omission of the yolk
  67. replacement of egg yolks with vegetable fats
  68. removal of some of the cholesterol from the yolk
  69. all of the above
  70. Liquid egg substitutes
  71. are lower in sodium than regular eggs.
  72. have a four-month shelf-life.
  73. are irradiated and usually used for baked goods such as cakes and cookies.
  74. are used when raw eggs would pose a food safety risk.
  75. Value-added eggs have special attributes due to their nutrient content or because of the way that they are raised. For example, some have
  76. higher cholesterol levels.
  77. lower omega-3-fatty acid levels.
  78. been fed animal products.
  79. higher vitamin E levels.
  80. none of the above
  81. The high protein content in whole eggs makes them excellent
  82. binders.
  83. emulsifiers.
  84. coloring agents.
  85. all of the above
  86. The best temperature for beating egg whites into a stable foam is
  87. refrigerator temperature.
  88. tepid temperature.
  89. room temperature.
  90. none of the above
  91. Factors that yield the best possible egg-white foam include
  92. whipping the whites into very large bubbles.
  93. whites that quickly slide out of a bowl when it is turned upside down.
  94. using deep bowls with rounded bottoms sloping up into the sides.
  95. using plastic bowls because their porous surface may harbor a thin film of grease, which helps stabilize foam formation.
  96. What is the purpose of adding salt to an egg white foam?
  97. to increase foam volume up to 40 percent
  98. no purpose – salt is rarely added to foams
  99. to allow whites to whip into a more stable foam
  100. to act as an interfering agent
  101. Coagulation temperatures for
  102. egg whites begin at about 140 degrees F.
  103. egg yolks begin at slightly lower temperatures than for whites.
  104. beaten eggs begin at about 144 degrees F.
  105. both egg whites and yolks are the same.
  106. The difference between French and American omelets is that
  107. French omelets have a little color on the outside, while American omelets are never allowed to brown.
  108. French omelets have texture lines, while American omelets never have texture lines.
  109. American omelets are folded in thirds, while French omelets are folded in half.
  110. American omelet centers are fully cooked while the centers of French omelets are still soft.
  111. The fluffiness of a puffy omelet is achieved by
  112. whipping both yolks and whites together until a dry mass is achieved.
  113. whipping whites until stiff and then folding them into separately whipped yolks.
  114. pouring a whipped egg mixture into a cold omelet pan or a suitable frying pan with sloping sides.
  115. none of the above
  116. Problems that can occur when preparing hard meringues include
  117. shrinking.
  118. weeping.
  119. beading.
  120. all of the above
  121. none of the above
  122. The correct way to determine if a soufflé is done is to
  123. continually check for doneness during baking.
  124. stick a toothpick in the center: if it comes out dry, the soufflé is done.
  125. gently shake the oven rack to determine if the soufflé jiggles.
  126. all of the above

e    none of the above

  1. When folding egg whites:
  2. with heavier mixtures, it is best to pour the whites over the heavier mixture.
  3. it is best not to rotate the bowl during folding.
  4. once no streaks remain visible in the mixture, complete 5-6 more strokes.
  5. avoid stirring, which will force air out of the egg whites.
  6. Which of the following statements is correct regarding methods for hard-cooking eggs?
  7. A drawback of the hot-start method is that eggs may crack when lowered into the water.
  8. A drawback of the hot-start method is that the eggs may be more difficult to peel.
  9. A drawback of the cold-start method is that the process requires more attention.
  10. An advantage of the cold-start method is that the egg white by the shell’s surface stays soft and does not overcook.
  11. When cooking eggs in a microwave,
  12. a browning dish is required for a poached egg.
  13. do not puncture the yolk for shirred eggs.
  14. water, a dash of vinegar, and salt should be added to omelet mixtures before cooking.
  15. microwaving is completed when scrambled eggs are just past the runny stage.
  16. none of the above
  17. The biggest problem with the safety of eggs is contamination from
  18. Escherichia coli.
  19. Salmonella enteritidis.
  20. Clostridium botulinum.
  21. Clostridium perfringens.

True/False

  1. The emulsifying agent lecithin is found only in the egg whites.
  2. The binding agent in eggs is the proteins.
  3. The only part of the egg which will produce a stable foam is the white.
  4. Feed for hens laying organic eggs cannot contain any growth hormones.
  5. The best time to add sugar to an egg white foam is near the end of the foam development.
  6. Eggs are frequently used in candies and ice creams because they promote ice and/or sugar crystal formation.
  7. The egg yolks coagulate at a lower temperature than the whites.
  8. The green ring around the yolk in an improperly cooked and/or cooled hard-cooked egg is ferrous sulfide.
  9. The weeping seen on the tops of meringue pies may be avoided by adding cornstarch to the sugar before beating it into the egg whites.
  10. The main cause of beading on a meringue is undissolved sugar, but overcooking may cause it as well.
  11. The term “hard-boiled eggs” is incorrect because the contents of the egg actually coagulate long before the boiling point is reached.
  12. Fertilized eggs are more nutritious than non-fertilized eggs.

Matching

Definition choices:

  1. the nutrient-dense yellow center of the egg that serves to nourish the developing chick
  2. the egg white, which accounts for approximately three-fifths of the egg’s weight
  3. the waxy outer coating of the egg shell that seals the pores and protects the egg from moisture loss and bacterial contamination
  4. the membrane surrounding the egg yolk and attached to the chalazae
  5. the ropey, twisted strands of albumen that anchor the yolk to the center of the thick egg white
  6. yolk
  7. chalazae
  8. vitelline membrane
  9. cuticle or bloom
  10. albumen

Discussion

  1. Describe the functions of eggs in food preparation; include examples of each of the functions. Be sure the coverage includes all parts of the egg.
  2. Although eggs are considered one of the most problematic foods when it comes to food safety, less than one in 10,000 eggs in the commercial supply is actually contaminated. Why are eggs then such a food safety risk? Explain how the problem occurs.
  3. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention has implicated eggs as the source for many Salmonella outbreaks; there is an increasing possibility that Listeria monocytogenes may also contribute to future outbreaks. Discuss the precautions that can be taken to prevent foodborne illness from eggs.
  4. Compare and contrast the different storage guidelines and food preparation uses for fresh, frozen, and dried eggs. Include specific food safety precautions for each category.
  5. The sous chef at your restaurant claims that she is receiving old eggs from the purveyor that you’ve been using for years. You know that the eggs are fresh. Describe how you could prove to her that you are correct using all possible ways (crack on a plate, hard boil, pH, etc.).
  6. Discuss the nutrient content of the various parts of the egg. Why do some consumers use egg substitutes? Compare the nutritional aspects of substitutes such as Egg Beaters to the standard egg. Discuss the advantages and/or disadvantages for using the substitutes or value-added eggs.
  7. Your prep cook is arranging “hard boiled” eggs on a hors d’oeuvres platter. The yolks are surrounded by a dark green color. You are unhappy with their appearance. What is this discoloration called? What caused this discoloration to occur? Describe all the things that the cook should do next time to prevent this problem from occurring again.

Extra Credit Question:

  1. Go to a specialty gourmet store or your butcher and compare as many of the following eggs as possible with your standard shell egg: fertile eggs, organic eggs, free-range eggs, quail eggs, duck eggs, goose eggs, turkey eggs, and ostrich eggs.Crack each egg on a separate plate and compare the similarities and differences.
    Scramble and cook each egg in the same manner. Taste test and find your favorites.

[1] By Dr. Joan Aronson of New York University. A ready-to-use test (the same questions reformatted for printing out as a test) is provided at the end of this document.

Test[1] Bank for Chapter 22 – Fats and Oils

Key to question information: ANS = correct answer; DIF = question difficulty; REF = page reference

Multiple Choice

  1. Functions of fats in foods include
  2. shortening power.
  3. plasticity and solubility.
  4. satiety and nutrients.
  5. all of the above answers are correct
  6. only b and c are correct

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 454

  1. The function of a fat that tenderizes the texture of baked products by impeding gluten development, making them softer and easier to chew, best describes
  2. texture.
  3. plasticity.
  4. shortening.
  5. flavor/mouthfeel.

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 454

  1. Food fats and oils are abundant in
  2. animal foods such as red meats, poultry, and dairy products.
  3. plant foods such as nuts, seeds, avocados, olives, and coconuts.
  4. processed foods such as cakes, dairy foods, and snack foods.
  5. foods to which mayonnaise is added at the table.
  6. all of the above answers are correct

ANS: e       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 453

  1. Margarine was first introduced in the
  2. 1840s.
  3. 1860s.
  4. 1920s.
  5. 1940s.

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 453

  1. The correct order for the four stages of cooking that occur in deep-fat frying is
  2. crust formation, fat transfer, interior cooking, and moisture transfer.
  3. moisture transfer, fat transfer, crust formation, and interior cooking.
  4. fat transfer, moisture transfer, interior cooking, and crust formation.
  5. crust formation, interior cooking, fat transfer, and moisture transfer.

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 454

  1. In fried foods
  2. oil is absorbed and water leaves as steam, contributing to a crisp, moist surface.
  3. the crust browns because of caramelization.
  4. the inner core of the food cooks by direct contact with the heated fat.
  5. all of the above answers are correct
  6. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 454

  1. The shortening power is greater in a fat that contains
  2. fewer highly saturated fats.
  3. more highly saturated fats.
  4. more highly unsaturated fats.
  5. No differences in composition result in a change of shortening power.

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 454

  1. When fat is mixed into a flour mixture,
  2. fat separates the flour’s starch and protein.
  3. fat melts into the dough when heated.
  4. fat creates air spaces in the finished product.
  5. fat defines the baked product’s characteristic texture.
  6. all of the above answers are correct
  7. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: e       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 455

  1. Examples of water-in-oil emulsions include
  2. mayonnaise and salad dressings.
  3. cheese sauces and creams soups.
  4. butter and margarine.
  5. egg yolk, milk, and cream.
  6. all of the above answers are correct

ANS: c       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 455

  1. An emulsion contains
  2. the dispersed or discontinuous phase, which is usually oil.
  3. the dispersion medium or continuous phase, which is usually an organic solvent.
  4. a stabilizing compound that increases a liquid’s surface tension to reduce its wetting ability.
  5. all of the above answers are correct
  6. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 455-456

  1. Which of the following emulsifiers are added to foods for their ability to increase or improve emulsion stability, dough strength, volume, texture, and tolerance of ingredients to processing?
  2. phospholipids
  3. vegetable gums
  4. mono- and diglycerides
  5. polysorbate 60 and propylene glycol monoesters
  6. ground paprika, dried mustard, and other finely ground herbs or spices
  7. all of the above answers are correct

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 456

  1. Which of the following is not used as an emulsifier in the food industry?
  2. gluten
  3. gelatin
  4. egg white
  5. vegetable gums such as carrageenan
  6. milk and soy proteins

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 456

  1. The lipoproteins of egg yolk are classified as
  2. both surfactants and good emulsifiers.
  3. surfactants but not good emulsifiers.
  4. good emulsifiers but not surfactants.
  5. neither surfactants nor good emulsifiers.

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 455

  1. When common emulsifiers function to mix lipid- and water-based ingredients,
  2. the glycerol molecules and hydroxyl groups in their structures are drawn to the lipid phase.
  3. the one or two fatty acids in their structures are drawn toward the lipid phase.
  4. their molecules are completely hydrophilic.
  5. the hydrophobic ends of their molecules attach to water.

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 456

  1. Which of the following can reform a temporary emulsion that has separated?
  2. agitation
  3. short storage times
  4. extreme temperatures
  5. surface drying
  6. added salt
  7. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 456

  1. How would you classify homemade oil-and-vinegar and commercial French salad dressings, respectively?
  2. temporary and semi-permanent emulsions
  3. semi-permanent and permanent emulsions
  4. temporary and permanent emulsions
  5. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: a       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 456

  1. The melting point of a fat is dependant on
  2. degree of saturation of the fatty acids.
  3. length of the fatty acids.
  4. cis-trans configuration.
  5. crystalline structure.
  6. all of the above answers are correct
  7. only answers a and b are correct

ANS: e       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 456

  1. Which of the following statements about cis-trans configurations is false?
  2. Melting point is affected by the number of cis and trans double bonds.
  3. A fatty acid with a trans configuration has a higher melting point than an identical fatty acid with a cis form at the double bond.
  4. Hydrogenation changes the trans form to the cis form.
  5. all of the above answers are correct
  6. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 457|464

  1. Which of the following would decrease the melting point of a fat?
  2. making the fat crystals larger
  3. increasing the proportion of saturated fatty acids in the fat
  4. changing the double bond configurations from cis to trans
  5. increasing the number of kinks in the fatty acid molecules

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 457

  1. Which of the following crystalline forms is best for food preparation because it yields fine-textured baked goods and smooth-surfaced hydrogenated vegetable shortenings?
  2. alpha (a)
  3. beta prime (b’)
  4. beta (b)
  5. There isn’t one best form. They all achieve these characteristics.

ANS: b       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 457

  1. Extremely slow cooling or long storage times form _____ crystals, which have an opaque look yet produce a sandy, brittle texture.
  2. alpha (a)
  3. beta (b)
  4. beta prime (b’)
  5. all of the above answers are correct
  6. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 457

  1. The _____ crystalline form of fat is the most stable and has the highest melting point.
  2. alpha (a)
  3. beta (b)
  4. beta prime (b’)
  5. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 457

  1. Fats are soluble in organic compounds but not in _____.
  2. chloroform
  3. ether
  4. benzene
  5. water

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 458

  1. _____ is an example of a plastic fat. The more _____ a fat is, the more plastic it will be.
  2. Hydrogenated vegetable oil, saturated
  3. Chilled butter, unsaturated
  4. Chilled lard, saturated
  5. Hydrogenated vegetable oil, unsaturated

ANS: d       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 457-458

  1. Butter contains up to _____ percent water while diet margarines can contain up to _____ percent water.
  2. 4, 20
  3. 8, 30
  4. 12, 40
  5. 16, 50
  6. Depends on individual brands

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 458|460

  1. Which of the following fats will splatter the most when placed in a hot pan?
  2. butter
  3. diet margarine
  4. clarified butter
  5. peanut and safflower oils
  6. hydrogenated shortening

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 460|467

  1. Which of the following butters will not burn because its milk solids and water have been removed?
  2. whipped
  3. compound
  4. powdered
  5. clarified
  6. brown or black

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 458

  1. For health reasons, Americans are advised to consume _____.
  2. as little fat as possible
  3. more fat from non-fried fish and less from shortening
  4. no more than 30% of total kcalories from any type of fat
  5. more fat from beef and whole milk and less from fish
  6. saturated in place of polyunsaturated fats

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 460

  1. Trans fatty acids are found in
  2. beef and butter.
  3. vegetable shortenings and frying oils.
  4. partially hydrogenated fats.
  5. all of the above

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 460

  1. Butter
  2. may not be contain coloring additives according to the USDA definition.
  3. decreases shelf life of baked goods by speeding staling.
  4. is made from cream that has been centrifuged.
  5. can be clarified by homogenizing it and adding salt.

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 458

  1. Fats provide satiety because
  2. they are digested more quickly than carbohydrates and proteins.
  3. they speed up the emptying of the stomach.
  4. they slow (delay) the emptying of the stomach.
  5. they are less complex molecules than carbohydrates and proteins.

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 458

  1. Which of the following is usually not found in margarine?
  2. cultured skim milk and lecithin
  3. mono- and diglycerides
  4. sodium benzoate and potassium sorbate
  5. vitamins A and D
  6. annatto and/or carotene
  7. none of the above are found in margarine
  8. all of the above are found in margarine

ANS: g       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 460

  1. Superglycerinated shortenings are ideal for:
  2. flaky pastries.
  3. cakes containing more sugar than flour.
  4. baking applications where solid fat is needed.
  5. all of the above answers are correct
  6. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: d       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 461

  1. The purpose of hydrogenation of plant oils is to
  2. make them more solid and increase smoke point and shelf life.
  3. increase the trans fatty acids in plant oils.
  4. decrease the satiety value of the lipid.
  5. make the oil less saturated, and thus healthier.

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 464

  1. Winterized oils are
  2. vegetable oils which solidify under refrigerator temperatures.
  3. oils from which certain fatty acids have been removed to prevent cloudiness.
  4. oils in which hydrogen atoms have been added to the fatty acids to prevent cloudiness.
  5. animal oils which have been interesterified.

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 464

  1. The health issue related to cis- and trans-fatty acids is
  2. cis-fatty acids increase the risk of heart disease.
  3. trans-fatty acids reduce the risk of heart disease.
  4. cis-fatty acids reduce the risk of heart disease.
  5. trans-fatty acids increase the risk of heart disease.

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 465

  1. Which of the following statements is false about interesterification?
  2. It is a commercial process that rearranges fatty acids on the glycerol molecule in order to produce a fat with a grainier texture.
  3. Interesterification creates lard with a slightly lower melting point.
  4. Both answers are true.
  5. Both answers are false.

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 465

  1. Which of the following fats benefits from interesterification?
  2. lard
  3. cocoa butter substitutes
  4. butter
  5. both a and b are correct
  6. both b and c are correct

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 465

  1. Which of the following types of fat replacers has the characteristics of fat, but with fewer kcalories due to altered digestibility?
  2. substitutes
  3. mimetics
  4. analogs
  5. extenders

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 465-466

  1. Fat replacers are grouped by:
  2. the reduction in number of kcalories in the product.
  3. their functionality in the foods where they are used.
  4. the reduction in percentage of kcalories in the food.
  5. whether their chemical structure is carbohydrate, protein, or lipid based.

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 466

  1. One positive aspect of olestra is that it
  2. reduces the absorption of vitamins A and E.
  3. is made from protein and vegetable oil.
  4. is heat stable and can withstand high temperatures.
  5. all of the above answers are correct
  6. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 467

  1. Rank the following fats and oils in order of their smoke point, from lowest to highest.
  2. vegetable shortenings plus emulsifier; lard; olive oil; soybean oil
  3. lard; soybean oil; vegetable shortenings plus emulsifier; olive oil
  4. olive oil; soybean oil; lard; vegetable shortenings plus emulsifier
  5. soybean oil; olive oil; vegetable shortenings plus emulsifier; lard

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 468

  1. The preferred metal for deep-fat frying equipment is:
  2. cast iron.
  3. copper.
  4. glass.
  5. aluminum.
  6. stainless steel.

ANS: e       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 468

  1. Which of the following statements regarding oil preservation during frying is incorrect?
  2. Use oils with smoke points above 350 degrees F (177 degrees C).
  3. Only completely dry food should be submerged.
  4. Monitor freshness of frying oils by checking their color against a standard.
  5. Limit egg yolks used in the batter or flour.
  6. none of the above answers is incorrect

ANS: a       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 467-468|469

  1. Which of the following statements about storage of fats is false?
  2. Butter can be stored in both the refrigerator and freezer.
  3. Margarine does not freeze well because its emulsions may separate.
  4. Olive oil has a longer shelf life than most vegetable oils and can be stored at room temperature, tightly covered and in a dark area.
  5. Monounsaturated fats usually keep for about 1 year.

ANS: c       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 471

  1. The three stages of _____ involve initiation, propagation, and termination.
  2. hydrolytic rancidity
  3. oxidative rancidity
  4. flavor reversion
  5. all of the above answers are correct

ANS: b       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 472

  1. To which foods are antioxidants commonly added to prevent rancidity?
  2. nuts and chips
  3. dry cereals
  4. flour mixes
  5. all of the above answers are correct
  6. none of the above answers is correct

ANS: d       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 473

True/False

  1. It is easy to substitute other ingredients to mimic the unique properties that fats impart to foods.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 454

  1. Emulsions are classified on the basis of their tendency to separate on standing and their viscosity.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 456

  1. Fats have a distinct flavor of their own to contribute to food; however, they are unable to absorb fat-soluble flavor compounds from other foods.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 458

  1. The percentage of fat in butter is approximately 90%.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 458

  1. Margarine was a butter replacement developed during the Napoleonic period.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 459

  1. The nut oils such as almond oil are ideal for frying.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 463

  1. The selection of the oil for any food use is based on the outcome desired.

ANS: T       DIF: Application-based                        REF: 462

  1. Flaxseed oil is rich in alpha-linolenic acid, which has been shown to decrease blood pressure, while olive oil and canola oil are prized for their high monounsaturated fatty acid content.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 464

  1. Cocoa butter is used in chocolate confections because it is perfect for the “melt in the mouth” characteristic desired in good chocolates.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 465

  1. Fat substitutes do not replace fat on a weight-to-weight basis as do the fat mimetics.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 465

  1. One of the cardinal rules of deep-fat frying is to maintain temperature of the oil as well as the food.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 468

  1. There are three types of rancidity: hydrolytic, oxidative, and flavor reversion.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 471|472

  1. Hydrolytic rancidity is triggered by light, high temperatures, table salt, and food particles in the frying oil.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 472

  1. Placing cold, wet food in heated frying oil introduces moisture, making the oil prone to oxidative rancidity.

ANS: F       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 472

  1. Naturally occurring antioxidants include lecithin, flavonoids, and vitamins C and E.

ANS: T       DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 473

Matching

Definition choices:

  1. a fat that tenderizes, or shortens, the texture of baked products by impeding gluten development, making them softer to chew
  2. the ability of a fat to hold its shape or to be molded under light pressure
  3. a surface-active agent that reduces a liquid’s surface tension to increase its wetting and blending ability
  4. a liquid dispersed in another liquid with which it is usually immiscible
  5. a commercial process in which hydrogen atoms are added to the double bonds in unsaturated fatty acids to make them more saturated
  6. shortening
  7. emulsion
  8. surfactant
  9. plasticity
  10. hydrogenation

Key:

  1. ANS: a DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 454
  2. ANS: d DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 455
  3. ANS: c DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 455
  4. ANS: b DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 457
  5. ANS: e DIF: Knowledge-based                         REF: 464

Discussion

  1. What are fat replacers? Define fat substitutesmimeticsanalogs, and extenders. Compare and contrast the carbohydrate-, protein-, and lipid-based fat replacers. Describe the positive and negative characteristics of olestra. What is the importance of fat replacers in the modern food industry and how does it relate to the health of society today?

ANS: See pp. 465-467.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 465-467

  1. Why would I select one fat or oil over another for use in a food product? Explain how I should make the selection.

ANS: See pp. 462-465.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 462-465

  1. Describe the many functions of fats in food preparation and give several examples for each one.

ANS: See pp. 454-458.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 454-458

  1. What is an emulsion? Describe the differences between an oil-in-water emulsion and a water-in-oil emulsion. What are the functions of an emulsifier? Give examples of both natural and synthetic emulsifiers. Discuss stability of emulsions. Describe the differences among the three types of emulsions and give examples of each one.

ANS: See pp. 455-456.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 455-456

  1. Name the four characteristics of a fatty acid that can influence the melting point of a fat and explain how they affect melting point. Define polymorphism. State the differences among the various classifications of fat crystals and give examples of each one.

ANS: See p. 456-457.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 456-457

  1. The food industry has to list trans fatty acids on the nutrition label of processed foods. Do you feel that the food industry has a moral responsibility to reduce the amounts of both saturated and trans fatty acids in its processed foods? Does the hydrogenated fat content affect your selection process when you purchase or consume a food? Why or why not?

ANS: See pp. 460 and 464-465.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 460|464-465

  1. What are some possible sources of error when sautéing, stir-frying, pan-prying, and deep-fat frying? Can any fat be used for frying? Define smoke pointflash point, and fire point. How does the temperature of frying fat affect the absorption of fat into foods? Discuss the differing effects of frying foods at too-low temperatures as opposed to frying at the optimal temperature. What equipment is recommended for frying? Give guidelines for optimal frying conditions.

ANS: See pp. 467-470.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 467-470

  1. Discuss how to store fats properly. What is rancidity? What is the difference between hydrolytic and oxidative rancidity? Name the three stages of oxidative rancidity. Define flavor reversion and give examples. How do you prevent rancidity in lipids?

ANS: See pp. 471-473.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 471-473

  1. Your best friend just went into business and opened a fried doughnut take-out restaurant, and as a result of the type of operation, she is spending too much money on frying fat for her industrial-size fryer. In addition, once in awhile, her doughnuts are just too greasy and she does not know why. Using your food science knowledge, provide her with some advice to help make the best of her oil usage.

ANS: See pp. 467-473.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 467-473

  1. Your best friend just went into business and opened a fried doughnut take-out restaurant. Can you give her any advice to make her doughnuts as healthy as possible? Her clients love the taste and flavor, but want to be as health-conscious as possible. Are fat replacers an option?

ANS: See pp. 460, 463-464, 465-467, and 469-471.

DIF: Application-based                                          REF: 460|463-464|465-467|469-471

Ready-to-Use Chapter 22 Test

Multiple Choice

  1. Functions of fats in foods include
  2. shortening power.
  3. plasticity and solubility.
  4. satiety and nutrients.
  5. all of the above answers are correct
  6. only b and c are correct
  7. The function of a fat that tenderizes the texture of baked products by impeding gluten development, making them softer and easier to chew, best describes
  8. texture.
  9. plasticity.
  10. shortening.
  11. flavor/mouthfeel.
  12. Food fats and oils are abundant in
  13. animal foods such as red meats, poultry, and dairy products.
  14. plant foods such as nuts, seeds, avocados, olives, and coconuts.
  15. processed foods such as cakes, dairy foods, and snack foods.
  16. foods to which mayonnaise is added at the table.
  17. all of the above answers are correct
  18. Margarine was first introduced in the
  19. 1840s.
  20. 1860s.
  21. 1920s.
  22. 1940s.
  23. The correct order for the four stages of cooking that occur in deep-fat frying is
  24. crust formation, fat transfer, interior cooking, and moisture transfer.
  25. moisture transfer, fat transfer, crust formation, and interior cooking.
  26. fat transfer, moisture transfer, interior cooking, and crust formation.
  27. crust formation, interior cooking, fat transfer, and moisture transfer.
  28. In fried foods
  29. oil is absorbed and water leaves as steam, contributing to a crisp, moist surface.
  30. the crust browns because of caramelization.
  31. the inner core of the food cooks by direct contact with the heated fat.
  32. all of the above answers are correct
  33. none of the above answers is correct
  34. The shortening power is greater in a fat that contains
  35. fewer highly saturated fats.
  36. more highly saturated fats.
  37. more highly unsaturated fats.
  38. No differences in composition result in a change of shortening power.
  39. When fat is mixed into a flour mixture,
  40. fat separates the flour’s starch and protein.
  41. fat melts into the dough when heated.
  42. fat creates air spaces in the finished product.
  43. fat defines the baked product’s characteristic texture.
  44. all of the above answers are correct
  45. none of the above answers is correct
  46. Examples of water-in-oil emulsions include
  47. mayonnaise and salad dressings.
  48. cheese sauces and creams soups.
  49. butter and margarine.
  50. egg yolk, milk, and cream.
  51. all of the above answers are correct
  52. An emulsion contains
  53. the dispersed or discontinuous phase, which is usually oil.
  54. the dispersion medium or continuous phase, which is usually an organic solvent.
  55. a stabilizing compound that increases a liquid’s surface tension to reduce its wetting ability.
  56. all of the above answers are correct
  57. none of the above answers is correct
  58. Which of the following emulsifiers are added to foods for their ability to increase or improve emulsion stability, dough strength, volume, texture, and tolerance of ingredients to processing?
  59. phospholipids
  60. vegetable gums
  61. mono- and diglycerides
  62. polysorbate 60 and propylene glycol monoesters
  63. ground paprika, dried mustard, and other finely ground herbs or spices
  64. all of the above answers are correct
  65. Which of the following is not used as an emulsifier in the food industry?
  66. gluten
  67. gelatin
  68. egg white
  69. vegetable gums such as carrageenan
  70. milk and soy proteins
  71. The lipoproteins of egg yolk are classified as
  72. both surfactants and good emulsifiers.
  73. surfactants but not good emulsifiers.
  74. good emulsifiers but not surfactants.
  75. neither surfactants nor good emulsifiers.
  76. When common emulsifiers function to mix lipid- and water-based ingredients,
  77. the glycerol molecules and hydroxyl groups in their structures are drawn to the lipid phase.
  78. the one or two fatty acids in their structures are drawn toward the lipid phase.
  79. their molecules are completely hydrophilic.
  80. the hydrophobic ends of their molecules attach to water.
  81. Which of the following can reform a temporary emulsion that has separated?
  82. agitation
  83. short storage times
  84. extreme temperatures
  85. surface drying
  86. added salt
  87. none of the above answers is correct
  88. How would you classify homemade oil-and-vinegar and commercial French salad dressings, respectively?
  89. temporary and semi-permanent emulsions
  90. semi-permanent and permanent emulsions
  91. temporary and permanent emulsions
  92. none of the above answers is correct
  93. The melting point of a fat is dependant on
  94. degree of saturation of the fatty acids.
  95. length of the fatty acids.
  96. cis-trans configuration.
  97. crystalline structure.
  98. all of the above answers are correct
  99. only answers a and b are correct
  100. Which of the following statements about cis-trans configurations is false?
  101. Melting point is affected by the number of cis and trans double bonds.
  102. A fatty acid with a trans configuration has a higher melting point than an identical fatty acid with a cis form at the double bond.
  103. Hydrogenation changes the trans form to the cis form.
  104. all of the above answers are correct
  105. none of the above answers is correct
  106. Which of the following would decrease the melting point of a fat?
  107. making the fat crystals larger
  108. increasing the proportion of saturated fatty acids in the fat
  109. changing the double bond configurations from cis to trans
  110. increasing the number of kinks in the fatty acid molecules
  111. Which of the following crystalline forms is best for food preparation because it yields fine-textured baked goods and smooth-surfaced hydrogenated vegetable shortenings?
  112. alpha (a)
  113. beta prime (b’)
  114. beta (b)
  115. There isn’t one best form. They all achieve these characteristics.
  116. Extremely slow cooling or long storage times form _____ crystals, which have an opaque look yet produce a sandy, brittle texture.
  117. alpha (a)
  118. beta (b)
  119. beta prime (b’)
  120. all of the above answers are correct
  121. none of the above answers is correct
  122. The _____ crystalline form of fat is the most stable and has the highest melting point.
  123. alpha (a)
  124. beta (b)
  125. beta prime (b’)
  126. none of the above answers is correct
  127. Fats are soluble in organic compounds but not in _____.
  128. chloroform
  129. ether
  130. benzene
  131. water
  132. _____ is an example of a plastic fat. The more _____ a fat is, the more plastic it will be.
  133. Hydrogenated vegetable oil, saturated
  134. Chilled butter, unsaturated
  135. Chilled lard, saturated
  136. Hydrogenated vegetable oil, unsaturated
  137. Butter contains up to _____ percent water while diet margarines can contain up to _____ percent water.
  138. 4, 20
  139. 8, 30
  140. 12, 40
  141. 16, 50
  142. Depends on individual brands
  143. Which of the following fats will splatter the most when placed in a hot pan?
  144. butter
  145. diet margarine
  146. clarified butter
  147. peanut and safflower oils
  148. hydrogenated shortening
  149. Which of the following butters will not burn because its milk solids and water have been removed?
  150. whipped
  151. compound
  152. powdered
  153. clarified
  154. brown or black
  155. For health reasons, Americans are advised to consume _____.
  156. as little fat as possible
  157. more fat from non-fried fish and less from shortening
  158. no more than 30% of total kcalories from any type of fat
  159. more fat from beef and whole milk and less from fish
  160. saturated in place of polyunsaturated fats
  161. Trans fatty acids are found in
  162. beef and butter.
  163. vegetable shortenings and frying oils.
  164. partially hydrogenated fats.
  165. all of the above
  166. Butter
  167. may not be contain coloring additives according to the USDA definition.
  168. decreases shelf life of baked goods by speeding staling.
  169. is made from cream that has been centrifuged.
  170. can be clarified by homogenizing it and adding salt.
  171. Fats provide satiety because
  172. they are digested more quickly than carbohydrates and proteins.
  173. they speed up the emptying of the stomach.
  174. they slow (delay) the emptying of the stomach.
  175. they are less complex molecules than carbohydrates and proteins.
  176. Which of the following is usually not found in margarine?
  177. cultured skim milk and lecithin
  178. mono- and diglycerides
  179. sodium benzoate and potassium sorbate
  180. vitamins A and D
  181. annatto and/or carotene
  182. none of the above are found in margarine
  183. all of the above are found in margarine
  184. Superglycerinated shortenings are ideal for:
  185. flaky pastries.
  186. cakes containing more sugar than flour.
  187. baking applications where solid fat is needed.
  188. all of the above answers are correct
  189. none of the above answers is correct
  190. The purpose of hydrogenation of plant oils is to
  191. make them more solid and increase smoke point and shelf life.
  192. increase the trans fatty acids in plant oils.
  193. decrease the satiety value of the lipid.
  194. make the oil less saturated, and thus healthier.
  195. Winterized oils are
  196. vegetable oils which solidify under refrigerator temperatures.
  197. oils from which certain fatty acids have been removed to prevent cloudiness.
  198. oils in which hydrogen atoms have been added to the fatty acids to prevent cloudiness.
  199. animal oils which have been interesterified.
  200. The health issue related to cis- and trans-fatty acids is
  201. cis-fatty acids increase the risk of heart disease.
  202. trans-fatty acids reduce the risk of heart disease.
  203. cis-fatty acids reduce the risk of heart disease.
  204. trans-fatty acids increase the risk of heart disease.
  205. Which of the following statements is false about interesterification?
  206. It is a commercial process that rearranges fatty acids on the glycerol molecule in order to produce a fat with a grainier texture.
  207. Interesterification creates lard with a slightly lower melting point.
  208. Both answers are true.
  209. Both answers are false.
  210. Which of the following fats benefits from interesterification?
  211. lard
  212. cocoa butter substitutes
  213. butter
  214. both a and b are correct
  215. both b and c are correct
  216. Which of the following types of fat replacers has the characteristics of fat, but with fewer kcalories due to altered digestibility?
  217. substitutes
  218. mimetics
  219. analogs
  220. extenders
  221. Fat replacers are grouped by:
  222. the reduction in number of kcalories in the product.
  223. their functionality in the foods where they are used.
  224. the reduction in percentage of kcalories in the food.
  225. whether their chemical structure is carbohydrate, protein, or lipid based.
  226. One positive aspect of olestra is that it
  227. reduces the absorption of vitamins A and E.
  228. is made from protein and vegetable oil.
  229. is heat stable and can withstand high temperatures.
  230. all of the above answers are correct
  231. none of the above answers is correct
  232. Rank the following fats and oils in order of their smoke point, from lowest to highest.
  233. vegetable shortenings plus emulsifier; lard; olive oil; soybean oil
  234. lard; soybean oil; vegetable shortenings plus emulsifier; olive oil
  235. olive oil; soybean oil; lard; vegetable shortenings plus emulsifier
  236. soybean oil; olive oil; vegetable shortenings plus emulsifier; lard
  237. The preferred metal for deep-fat frying equipment is:
  238. cast iron.
  239. copper.
  240. glass.
  241. aluminum.
  242. stainless steel.
  243. Which of the following statements regarding oil preservation during frying is incorrect?
  244. Use oils with smoke points above 350 degrees F (177 degrees C).
  245. Only completely dry food should be submerged.
  246. Monitor freshness of frying oils by checking their color against a standard.
  247. Limit egg yolks used in the batter or flour.
  248. none of the above answers is incorrect
  249. Which of the following statements about storage of fats is false?
  250. Butter can be stored in both the refrigerator and freezer.
  251. Margarine does not freeze well because its emulsions may separate.
  252. Olive oil has a longer shelf life than most vegetable oils and can be stored at room temperature, tightly covered and in a dark area.
  253. Monounsaturated fats usually keep for about 1 year.
  254. The three stages of _____ involve initiation, propagation, and termination.
  255. hydrolytic rancidity
  256. oxidative rancidity
  257. flavor reversion
  258. all of the above answers are correct
  259. To which foods are antioxidants commonly added to prevent rancidity?
  260. nuts and chips
  261. dry cereals
  262. flour mixes
  263. all of the above answers are correct
  264. none of the above answers is correct

True/False

  1. It is easy to substitute other ingredients to mimic the unique properties that fats impart to foods.
  2. Emulsions are classified on the basis of their tendency to separate on standing and their viscosity.
  3. Fats have a distinct flavor of their own to contribute to food; however, they are unable to absorb fat-soluble flavor compounds from other foods.
  4. The percentage of fat in butter is approximately 90%.
  5. Margarine was a butter replacement developed during the Napoleonic period.
  6. The nut oils such as almond oil are ideal for frying.
  7. The selection of the oil for any food use is based on the outcome desired.
  8. Flaxseed oil is rich in alpha-linolenic acid, which has been shown to decrease blood pressure, while olive oil and canola oil are prized for their high monounsaturated fatty acid content.
  9. Cocoa butter is used in chocolate confections because it is perfect for the “melt in the mouth” characteristic desired in good chocolates.
  10. Fat substitutes do not replace fat on a weight-to-weight basis as do the fat mimetics.
  11. One of the cardinal rules of deep-fat frying is to maintain temperature of the oil as well as the food.
  12. There are three types of rancidity: hydrolytic, oxidative, and flavor reversion.
  13. Hydrolytic rancidity is triggered by light, high temperatures, table salt, and food particles in the frying oil.
  14. Placing cold, wet food in heated frying oil introduces moisture, making the oil prone to oxidative rancidity.
  15. Naturally occurring antioxidants include lecithin, flavonoids, and vitamins C and E.

Matching

Definition choices:

  1. a fat that tenderizes, or shortens, the texture of baked products by impeding gluten development, making them softer to chew
  2. the ability of a fat to hold its shape or to be molded under light pressure
  3. a surface-active agent that reduces a liquid’s surface tension to increase its wetting and blending ability
  4. a liquid dispersed in another liquid with which it is usually immiscible
  5. a commercial process in which hydrogen atoms are added to the double bonds in unsaturated fatty acids to make them more saturated
  6. shortening
  7. emulsion
  8. surfactant
  9. plasticity
  10. hydrogenation

Discussion

  1. What are fat replacers? Define fat substitutesmimeticsanalogs, and extenders. Compare and contrast the carbohydrate-, protein-, and lipid-based fat replacers. Describe the positive and negative characteristics of olestra. What is the importance of fat replacers in the modern food industry and how does it relate to the health of society today?
  2. Why would I select one fat or oil over another for use in a food product? Explain how I should make the selection.
  3. Describe the many functions of fats in food preparation and give several examples for each one.
  4. What is an emulsion? Describe the differences between an oil-in-water emulsion and a water-in-oil emulsion. What are the functions of an emulsifier? Give examples of both natural and synthetic emulsifiers. Discuss stability of emulsions. Describe the differences among the three types of emulsions and give examples of each one.
  5. Name the four characteristics of a fatty acid that can influence the melting point of a fat and explain how they affect melting point. Define polymorphism. State the differences among the various classifications of fat crystals and give examples of each one.
  6. The food industry has to list trans fatty acids on the nutrition label of processed foods. Do you feel that the food industry has a moral responsibility to reduce the amounts of both saturated and trans fatty acids in its processed foods? Does the hydrogenated fat content affect your selection process when you purchase or consume a food? Why or why not?
  7. What are some possible sources of error when sautéing, stir-frying, pan-prying, and deep-fat frying? Can any fat be used for frying? Define smoke pointflash point, and fire point. How does the temperature of frying fat affect the absorption of fat into foods? Discuss the differing effects of frying foods at too-low temperatures as opposed to frying at the optimal temperature. What equipment is recommended for frying? Give guidelines for optimal frying conditions.
  8. Discuss how to store fats properly. What is rancidity? What is the difference between hydrolytic and oxidative rancidity? Name the three stages of oxidative rancidity. Define flavor reversion and give examples. How do you prevent rancidity in lipids?
  9. Your best friend just went into business and opened a fried doughnut take-out restaurant, and as a result of the type of operation, she is spending too much money on frying fat for her industrial-size fryer. In addition, once in awhile, her doughnuts are just too greasy and she does not know why. Using your food science knowledge, provide her with some advice to help make the best of her oil usage.
  10. Your best friend just went into business and opened a fried doughnut take-out restaurant. Can you give her any advice to make her doughnuts as healthy as possible? Her clients love the taste and flavor, but want to be as health-conscious as possible. Are fat replacers an option?

[1] By Dr. Joan Aronson of New York University. A ready-to-use test (the same questions reformatted for printing out as a test) is provided at the end of this document.

The post Test bank understanding food principles and preparation 5th edition appeared first on Australia Assessments.

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